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The loud cry of the third angel has already begun
Posted by: myeates | Sat, Apr 21, 2007 11:24 pm | Tag(s): Testimonies | Permalink |
The time of test is just upon us, for the loud cry of the third angel has already begun in the revelation of the righteousness of Christ, the sin-pardoning Redeemer. This is the beginning of the light of the angel whose glory shall fill the whole earth (1SM p. 363. RH Nov 1892).
An unwillingness to yield up preconceived opinions, and to accept this truth [Christ our Righteousness in connection with the law in Galatians.], lay at the foundation of a large share of the opposition manifested at Minneapolis against the Lord’s message through Brethren Waggoner and Jones.
By exciting that opposition Satan succeeded in shutting away from our people, in a great measure, the special power of the Holy Spirit that God longed to impart to them. The enemy prevented them from obtaining that efficiency which might have been theirs in carrying the truth to the world, as the apostles proclaimed it after the day of Pentecost. The light that is to lighten the whole earth with its glory was resisted, and by the action of our own brethren has been in a great degree kept away from the world (1SM p.234-235. 1896).
The cross of Calvary is to be lifted high above the people, absorbing their minds and concentrating their thoughts. Then all the spiritual faculties will be charged with divine power direct from God. Then there will be a concentration of energies in genuine work for the Master. The workers will send forth to the world beams of light, as living agencies to enlighten the earth (MB p. 44. 1896).
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One Response to “The loud cry of the third angel has already begun”
PowerOfChoice | April 22nd, 2007 at 5:35 amThank you Myeates for bringing up this most important issue!
The question is: Will you and I at this time, which time is the present - at any time - also make the same mistake and once again reject the 1888 message of “the righteousness of Christ?”
The question is also: Do we, you and I, understand the real time application and meaning in our very own life of those words “the righteousness of Christ?” If not, how can we not fail to accept that message? If we do not fully understand the deeper meaning of those words how can we possibly expect “to yield up preconceived opinions?” And if we fail to take time to study and carefully ask ourselves questions re these particular issues, how can we ever expect to pass this “time of test [which] is just upon us?”
Accordingly, it behooves us to penetrate the deeper meaning of those words rather than just parroting words of importance which we do not fully comprehend, is this not true?
“Ceremonial law” vs. man-made laws generally?
Aside from the term “the righteousness of Christ,” said 1888 message is also being correctly associated with the concept of “law” referenced by Paul in Galatians, is it not?
I have been blessed with making a little known discovery in re to Paul’s epistle to the Galatians: The so called ’subscript’ to Galatians 6:18, found in some editions of KJV, reads “Unto the Galatians written from Rome.” The Higher Critics discount these subscripts generally, but I am convinced, based upon a comprehensive multi year NT chronology study of mine, that those subscripts are genuine, correct, and probably found upon the original manuscripts (which may not be extant at this time.) Furthermore, I have found that Galatians was written very closely upon the release of Paul from his imprisonment. (Said release is indicated for instance by the subscript to Hebrews, which reads: “Written to the Hebrews from Italy by Timothy.” Notice, it does not read “from Rome!” (See more at TreeOfLife.lan.io/NTCh/ TableDatingEventsInActsAndInTheEpistles.htm)
What “law” do you think was upon the mind of Paul at the time when he was being released from his imprisonment? Isn’t it quite natural, considering Paul’s mindset at that particular time of release from Roman imprisonment, that the laws that Paul is referencing are man-made laws generally? That is in contradistinction to God’s law, which law is issued once and for all. And isn’t God’s law unchangeable for ever? Didn’t Jesus / Yeshua say in Matt. 5:18 ?: “For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”
Could it be that said “unwillingness to yield up preconceived opinions, and to accept…” is in part a reference to our conventional SDA opinion re “ceremonial law” and our consequent rejection of much of the lessons inherent in the three annual Feasts, which feasts according to the word of the Lord: “Ye shall keep… forever” (Exodus 12:14, cf. Ex. 23:14-17; Deut. 16:16, 20?) These are not the words or laws of Moses, are they?
Could it be that our “unwillingness” to get out from under the Governments of men, acting as they are in effect under none but the infamous “VICARIUS FILII DEI,” (cf. Rev. 13:11-12!) while failing to accept the invitation given each of us in Exodus 20:2, Deuteronomy 5:3-6 and Revelation 18:4, is due to our “preconceived opinions” re “law” as referenced by Paul in his epistle to the Galatians?
Re the quote from “MB p. 44. 1896” and the term “The cross of Calvary:”
“The cross” is itself a symbol closely associated with the last letter of the Hebrew alphabet, tau, which means ‘cross’ or ‘sign’ (cf. Strong’s H8427.)
“Calvary” or “Golgotha, which is, being interpreted, The place of a skull” (Mark 15:22; cf. Matt. 27:23 and John 19:17.)
But aren’t those words then, “the cross of Calvary,” to be for each of us a constant reminder of the importance of carefully considering and reflecting upon the true meaning of each word within the Word of God - until we learn how to ever more fully apply, in each of our lives, each of the lessons of “the righteousness of Christ” and “the faith of Jesus” (cf. Rev. 14:12.)
Re the nature of Jesus Christ:
The following passage from Hebrews 2:17 is recognized as being at the heart of the rejected 1888 message, is it not? :
“Wherefore in all things it behooved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.”
Was Jesus by his nature different from any of us? Was He God in a sense that each of us should not be? What is the essence of the concept ‘sons and daughters of God?’ How, if at all, do those words apply differently to Jesus?
Is it possible for each of us to live up to the standards which Jesus lived up to? Or is it not? Is the life of Yeshua the Messiah to be an example for each of us in real time? Or is He merely to serve as a substitute, “by his death upon the cross,” “for our sins?”
In other words: Am I to use Him, in effect, as a black sheep upon whom I am allowed to put the blame for all the shortcomings within my own life – while yet giving up upon all hope, and every attempt, towards cleansing my own thought patterns and habits, imprinted upon me, as most of them are, by my society? Am I excused for my participation in the sins of my society? Will Jesus accept my putting upon Him the blame for my unwillingness and refusal to recognize - and ceasing to participate in - the sins of Babylon?
Re “the loud cry of the third angel…” and of the fourth (and second) angels:
Did Jesus volunteer for being a subject conforming to the wishes of the then ruling Governments of men, or did he not? Did He reprimand Peter for giving the tax collector a promise on Jesus’ behalf, or did he not? (Cf. Matt. 17:25-26!)
If Yeshua was able not to submit to the arbitrary laws of men, am I then able to do likewise under God’s continual guidance, or am I not?
If Jesus was able not to participate in the sins of the then current Government, is it per chance then also possible for me to accept in real terms and in my own life the admonition?:
“Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues” (Revelation 18:4.)
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